Since
Leon of After Nature graciously responded to my post, I will constructively
respond in kind. Rather than directly respond to his points, I will take up the
issues his indicates.
We
“think the unthought” all the time. The issue is not whether thought can
“touch” the unthought, unless one accepts certain mind-world dualisms that
render the world utterly inaccessible to mind. The issue is representation.
We
must be careful, since I am using the word “representation” in a technical
manner commonly only to specialists. “Representation” means the encoding or
functional mapping of something to transform things of one category into
another category. When we are discussing mental representation, especially of
perception, then “representation” means the mapping of the world into conscious
categories. It does imply that the mental representation is a precise and
accurate copy of the world. In mathematical language, we would say that the a
copy would be “one-to-one” and “onto,” also called a “bijection”: for example,
everything is see corresponds exactly to the world regardless of the mechanisms
of visual perception. Yet I am not using the world “representation” in that
way.
So,
what is the issue of representation? The issue is not whether we “think the
unthought,” but what are the limitations of thought representing the unthought. The follow-up question is what and how
can we justify claims about the unthought given the limits of representation.
Given the discussion so far, we are ready to broach my question about whether
pragmatism is correlationist, which depends upon what “correlationist” means.
Pragmatism
requires only the following of representation to be true, barring a few
qualifications. First, that nature tends toward stable and law-like behavior
that we call “natural laws” or “habits.” Second, human beings are capable of
symbolically representing natural laws. Third, Human beings are capable of
using their representation to predict and control nature. Now, as long as
nature and the representations are stable, it does not really matter what the
content of nature or our representation of it is.
I
must insist that we not make the
following qualification about representation: we are not mapping the sensible world into conscious categories. I will assume that nature
is continuous, which means that there is no element of nature that cannot be
affect by another directly or indirectly. Given that assumption, any aspect of
nature is in principle indictable by another, and this is precisely the aim of
much scientific technology. For instance, the whole point of the Large Hadron
Collider is to render nature into sensible forms that indicate something about
nature’s fundamental particles. From the standpoint of science, what matters is
our ability to represent nature in a manner that allows for its prediction and
control, whereas a precise and accurate one-to-one description is secondary.
Pragmatism
dodges the obvious charge of correlationism, because it insists the mind and
world are not different ontological kinds. Mind is an event with worldly causal
conditions. Mind has no essence: it takes the character of what it is about.
Pragmatism
is not entirely out of the woods. The question of correlationism can be
repeated in a new form. So far, I have only given prima facie reasons why
pragmatic theories of representation are not obviously correlationist. Suppose
that the question became not about representation in general, but about
pragmatism’s realism. It is easy to dodge the charge of correlationism if one
is an anti-realist, but not so easy if one is a realist and a scholastic
realist at that.1 A scholastic realist maintains that generals and universals
are real and not artifacts of human nature or convenient fictions. Hence, the
laws of nature are real and not instances of Humean “constant conjunction.” The
opposite of scholastic realism is nominalism. Setting aside a defense of
scholastic realism, I will discuss the implications.
A
pragmatist wants to say that a phenomenal quality, e.g., the redness of an
apples, is a real feature of nature and not an epiphenomenon of human nature.
At first glance, this implies the adoption of correlationism, but it is not
true. Rather, the charge implies an inaccurate and unanalyzed assumption. A
pragmatist is not going to say that the apparent redness of an apple is in the
apple: the “redness” in mind is not the same “redness” in the world. Rather,
“redness” is the result of the interaction of mind and world that is reducible
to neither. In sum, the positive claim is that all similar interactions of
human minds and the world will produce an experience of redness, which is
explicitly multiply realizable. However, every realization will strong tend
towards a certain general pattern that we call “redness.” “Redness” is a
“general,” and since scholastic realism holds that “generals” are real, then
every predication of redness is a statement about nature and not just human
nature.
All
of this said, Leon moves from “thinking the unthought” to “knowledge” and
thinking “through thought to the unthought,” which is the “world without
subject,” or material world. In this, pragmatism concurs, though I am still not
clear on what “materialism” means in contemporary continental philosophy. If
materialism denies scholastic realism or activity/force/energy as real and
ontologically primordial, then we have points of contention.
Leon,
as I suspected he would, directs the discussion towards the commonalities of
pragmatism and materialism. Yes, thought is a “material practice,” says the
pragmatist. What makes “mind” special is a separateness from nature, but an
ability to mediate its own local temporal relations. I have posted on this
before…
1.
Not all pragmatists are scholastic realists by either public affirmation of
implication. Many contemporary pragmatists, and perhaps all neopragmatists, are
nominalists or anti-realists. Peirce was explicitly a scholastic realist. James does not have an obvious position. Dewey was a scholastic realist, but that interpretation is not wholly uncontroversial. To opponents of that view, I say this: Dewey's metaphysics and logic fall on its face without a robust realism. One had better become a Rortian in that case.
Does "correlationism" mean the charge of Meillasoux by the same name to all post-Kantian philosophy? If so, then I have never really understood how Meillasoux gets this critique off the ground without making a strawman of both phenomenological thinkers and thinkers of the analytic tradition.
ReplyDeleteI just don't think that "correlationism" is a properly formed concept. Even supposing that it had a sense it applies to no interesting philosophy of the last 100 years. Is Popper a correlationist? or Lakatos? or Quine? or Deleuze? or Foucault? No serious case studies have been done, it's just Harmanian litanies where everyone is grouped together, via guilt by association; It's impressing the profane by broad historical gesticulation. No real concept could possibly have the extension that OOOxians give it. No credit is gained by escaping from correlationism, as it is a bogus concept.
ReplyDeleteEd,
ReplyDeleteCorrelationism as a phrase began with Meillasoux. I Haven't read his complete formulation; I've seen formulations from the object-oriented crowd and a few speculative realists bloggers. That is, the few essays that I've read of Meillasoux gave definitions, but apparently I need to read his books. While I cannot speak for Meillassoux's formulation, I can say that there's something to the argument, and it can be made without making straw men of certain phenomenological thinkers and the analytic tradition. That said, we move into my response to Terrance.
Terence,
ReplyDeleteI think that a formulation can be made that is useful and damning. The question is whether it is more than reinvention of the critique of the Cartesian legacy stated from a unapologetically realist position. The more carefully correlationism is defined and defended, I suspect fewer and fewer (good) thinkers are guilty of it, although hitting Husserl and Heidegger should be plausible on defensible readings. Not the readings I would give, but still defensible.
In sum, I agree with you, Terence, that it is a rhetorical device used for political purposes, and it is used *only* for those purposes. (I was not going to say that philosophy is not or should not be rhetorical or political, just that it should not only be that.)
I am amused at your examples, btw, which are great ones to level. The only reason I bring up correlationism so much is because its so close to my work, and does get a response.