Perhaps my readers might inform me if there is something to my suspicion about the difference between "autopoetic" and "homeostatic" as philosophical concepts. Is there a significant difference?
I ask because I realized that I have been using "homeostatic," as has my tradition for at least a century, in ways that compatible with the more recent notion of "autopoetic." My suspicion is that the concept might not be as novel as some make it out to be, but then, I might be wrong. If it is not that novel, then there can be even more of a rapprochement between classical and neoclassical pragmatism and other traditions.